ZOO4232-EXAM 1

Since Pathogenic Parasites rely on their hosts for survival, the population dynamics of the parasite are influenced by the population dynamics of the hosts. The host population will likely contain which of the following?
a. individuals who are susceptible
b. individuals who are infected
c. individuals who have been infected but have never recovered
*d. all of the above
While an {_______} lives mainly on the surface of its host, an {________} lives mainly in the body of its host.
ectoparasite, endoparasite
What constitutes an epidemic?
a. 25 outbreaks
b. 50 outbreaks
c. 1 outbreak
d. 10 outbreaks
*e. all of the above
Elevated levels of which immune cells indicate a worm infection?
a. basophils
b. eosinophils
A disease involving a parasite that has accidentally infected a human; the normal host for the parasite is an animal.
*a. zoonosis
Hemoflagellates are transmitted by which organisms?
*B) Insects
The family Trypanosomatidae, contain two genera that parasitize humans, which are Genus Leishmania and Genus Trypanosoma.
Which is not a form of transformation that is undergone by Leishmania?
*B. Use of amino acids as a nitrogen source
Leishmania parasites enter cells by {__________}.
Of the three developmental stages in ticks, which stage is the most significant in human infection?
*b. nymph
Which one of these is NOT a natural host resistance to Plasmodium infections?
*e. Fructose-6-phosphate deficiency
The cysts of Balantidium coli have cilia.
Giardia lambilia replicates via a process called longitudinal binary fission.
Vector(s) of Chagas disease include which of the following. (HINT: Recognize the difference between a vector and the actual parasite which causes the disease)
b. Triatoma infestans
c. Rhodnius prolixus
*d. B and C
In Kinetoplastids RNA editing is the process of postranscriptional sequence alteration via {_______} or {_____} of uridylate residues at specific sites of Mitochondrial RNA.
Insertion / Deletion
Acute Chagas disease is mostly found in:
*a. children under 10
What is the main downfall to using a blood smear to diagnose a T.cruzi infection?
*b. Can only find parasites in blood during acute phases of disease
Trypanosoma cruzi is found only in
*b. the Americas
Which of the following is true of Trypanosoma cruzi?
*d. The vector is the Reduviid bug
The West Nile Virus only infects the human species.
[_____] is the vector responsible for “sleeping sickness.”
*b. Tsetse fly
Mucosal Leishmaniasis are primary lesions of the mucous memebranes such as the nose and oral cavity
All of the following are differences between slender and stumpy trypomastigotes, except
*d. cytoskeleton composition
T. cruzi is the causative agent of {______} disease
Chagas / Trypanosomiasis
T. cruzi parasites are ONLY found in the Americas–if a person is infected with them, they can’t have acquired it from any other place in the world.
In the fourth morphological form among hemoflagellates, many types of polymorphism are exhibited. These are
a. long, slender trypomastigote
b. stumpy trypomastigote
*d. a & b
In Plasmodium, the asexual phase [_____], occurs in the human, whereas the sexual phase [______], occurs in the mosquito
*b. schizogony;gamogony
Which of the following parasitic stages is characterized by asexual division?
*d. Schizont
Which alteration of the vagina will help treat T. vaginalis?
*a. Lowering the pH to 4.5
The metronidazole drug used to treat T. vaginalis forms an intermediate that is toxic, damaging DNA and other macromolecules.
How would one describe the parasites of T. vaginalis when observed in a wet mount?
*d. Very active
What structure in Trichomonas resemble the mitochondria?
*c. Hydrogenosome
How does T. vaginalis change the pH of the vagina?
*b. It makes it more alkaline
Infection of T. vaginalis in women is seen less if:
*b. They use oral contraceptives
Men are assymptomatic carriers of Trichomonas vaginalis.
The trophozoites of Trichomonas species are very active and motile.
Dientamoeba fragilis is not invasive.
Giardia produces an IgA [____]
*b. Protease
Giardia lamblia infection is commonly seen in:
a. Children 6-10 years of age
b. Daycare centers
c. Homosexual males
d. Wilderness campers
*e. All of the above
What gives the feces of individuals infected with Giardia lamblia its distinctive smell?
*c. The layer of fat present
If you let feces of an individual with Giardia lamblia settle, a layer of fat will become apparent.
Maturing cysts in Giardia lamblia gain:
*b. two more nuclei
Cysts are the site of nuclear division in Giardia lamblia.
The entire life span of the four species of Plasmodium that infect humans is spent in two hosts: the female mosquito insect vector and a human host.
This complex of organelles are found in the sporozoite and merozoite stages of the life cycles of these organisms
*b. apical complex
Babesiosis, toxoplasmosis, cryptosporidiosis, isosporiasis and cyclosporidiosis belong to the phylum Apicomplexa.
The “eyes” in Giardia lamblia are its [_____].
*a. Nuclei
A fool-proof way to detect infection by an amoeba is through the discovery of cysts in feces.
[______] results in intermittend watery diarrhea with stools containing mucus and blood.
*c. Balantidial dysentery
Which of the following are human reservoirs of Balantidium coli?
a. Pigs
c. Monkeys
*e. A and C
The cysts of Balantidium coli have cilia.
Balantidium coli undergoes sexual reproduction by [______]
Balantidium coli undergoes sexual reproduction by [_____]
[_____] is associated with contamination of contact lens fluid.
*a. Acanthamoeba keratitis
Naegleria fowleri produce sucker-like appendages or [_____] that ‘nibble’ away at the tissue culture cells.
*a. amebostomes
High prevalence of antibodies to Naegleria is found in [_____]
*a. young adults in southeastern USA
Both trophozoites and cysts are found in Acanthamoeba species.
Both trophozoites and cysts are found in Naegleria fowleri.
Free-living amoebas are intestinal blood parasites.
The American form of trypanosomiasis is caused by Trypanosoma vivax.
Fluctuations in the number of Trypanosoma brucei gambiense is widely attributed to its ability to vary the chemical composition of its [_____]
*a. variant surface glycoproteins (VSGs)
The infective morophological form of the protozoan Trypanosoma in humans is the______.
*b. metacyclic trypomastigote
In humans, the initial sign of cutaneous leishmaniasis infection is______.
*c. vascularized papule
When the identification of intracellular amastigotes from blood and tissue smears are inconclusive, xenodiagnosis can be used but is often time consuming.
In a leishmaniasis infection, replacement of infected cells produces hyperplasia and consequent enlargement of visceral organs associated with the system, such as the [______] and [______]
*a. spleen and liver
Which of the following are the three clinical manifestations of Leishmania in humans?
*b. visceral, cutaneous, mucocutaneous
The causative agent for visceral leishmaniasis, also known as dumdum fever, or kala-azar, is:
*c. Leishmania donovani
Leishmaniasis is considered an opportunistic infection and is grouped among those diseases that take advantage of immunocompromised individuals.
Each of the following statements concerning Trichomonas vaginalis is correct except:
*d. T. vaginalis causes dysentry
In RNA editing in kinetoplastids,what does TUTase stand for?
*b. 3’terminal uridylyl transferase
Visceral Leishmaniasis mainly infects the elderly people of Europe.
What is the correct taxonomy of the parasite T. cruzi from phylum to genus?
*b. Sarcomastigophora, Mastigophora, Kinestoplastida, Trypanosomatidae, Trypanosoma
What organelle in the cytoplasm of Protozoa is used mainly for osmoregulation?
*b. Contractile Vacuole
What is the main function of IgE?
*b. triggering histamine release from mast cells
All of the following are characteristics of hemoflagellates except:
*c. numerous mitochondria
The most important question to ask during the differential diagnosis of an infection from T. brucei is:
*b. Has the patient been to east or west Africa
The vector for T. brucei brucei, T. brucei gambiense, and T. brucei rhodesiense is:
*c. tsetse fly
What do xenodiagnosis studies show?
*a. There is communication between parasites and vectors that recruit parasites to feeding vectors
The cell-funeral hypothesis explains how:
*d. T. cruzi infection results in host T cells killing other host cells
One of the most significant presentations of Chagas disease, caused by T. cruzi, is:
*a. heart complications
T.cruzi demonstrates intracellular pathogenesis through lysosome-mediated entry of an infected cell.
Hemoflagellates have cyst forms.
How do the trypomastigote, epimastigote, promastigote, and amastigote forms differ regarding the overall morphology of the hemoflagellates?
*c. location of kinetoplast relative to nucleus and the single flagellum
Along with a kinetoplast, hemoflagellates also have:
*c. glycosomes
What is the difference between the Stercoraria and Salivaria subgenuses of the genus Trypanosoma of the Hemoflagellates?
*a. location of where the parasite develops in the vector
The tissue inflammatory response during amoebiasis is initiated and fueled by a combination of human and amoebic factors and ultimately leads to basophil-mediated intestinal destruction.
Which is true about free living amoeba Naegleira fowleri:
*a. There is no cyst stage in humans
Metronidazole is effective against:
a. worms
b. anaerobes
c. Giardia
*d. all of the above
You’re attempting to identify a sample of unknown bacteria. You’ve been told it belongs to the genus Entamoeba, but you still need to determine the species. Looking under a microscope, you see jagged chromosomal bars and nuclei predominately located around the outside. Based on this information, what is this bacteria?
*c. E. coli
In regards to Plasmodium falciparum, once the parasite gets into red blood cells and is dividing, what is the duration of the fever free period?
*c. 36-72 hours
Which of the following is pathogenic under the Sub-order Tubulina?
*b. Entamoeba
Metronidazole is a typical drug used to treat visceral protozoa.
Which of the following is a mode of transmission for amoeba?
a. water
b. food-borne
*d. a and b
Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) due to Naegleria fowleri, if diagnosed in time, can be treated with the following:
*c. intravenous and intrathecal amphotericin B and miconazole, plus rifampin
An effective way to reduce specific visceral protozoal infection such as E. hystolytica and G. lamblia is to:
*b. Boil drinking water, add 1.25-3 grams of iodine per liter of water in endemic areas
Which of the following is not a symptom of Intestinal Disease (Amebic Colitis)?
*d. weight gain
Ciliates are found in which Phylum?
*a. Ciliophora
Ciliates have which kinds of vacuoles?
a. contractile
c. food
*d. a and c
Naegleria fowleri “nibble” away at cells by means of sucker-like appendages called {________}
Cysts can be killed by:
*b. boiling
Ionophore-like proteins called {_______} mediate cytolytic and apoptotic effects among epithelial cells and neutrophils.
Amoeba-induced inflammations in the intestine leads to {_______}-mediated intestinal destruction.
Immobile parasites can invade the intestine.
Amebic Liver abscess, induced by Trophozoites, is:
*c. destruction of liver cells
The mucosa of the intestines gets thinner with Amebic Colitis.
Hallmarks of intestinal disease (amebic colitis) include:
a. flask shaped lesions
b. diarrhea, dysentery, GI pain
*d. a and b
Pentatrichomonas hominis
a. have 5 free flagellar
b. reside in the large intestine
c. are thought to be associated with bowel disease
*d. all of the above
Trichomonas tenax have 4 free flagellar
Backpacker’s disease is the popular name of the infection caused by:
*b. Giardia
Giardia lambia divides by binary fission in the {_________} direction.
Amoebaphore A in Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites cause liver abscesses whereas amoebaphores B and C are the causative agents of amoebic colitis.
All of the following are nonpathogenic flagellates except:
*b. Trichomonas vaginalis
Giardia has no mitochondria but can use oxygen when available.
Amoebaphore A in Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites cause liver abscesses whereas amoebaphores B and C are the causative agents of amoebic colitis.
In which morphological form of Entamoeba histolytica is the organism considered pathogenic?
*a. Trophozoite
What are the end products in the metabolization of lactate in Trichomonads?
a. Formate
b. Acetate
*d. a and b
The carrier state of amoebiasis is known as:
*d. Luminal amoebiasis
Species in the genus of Trichomonas do not have cysts.
Which of the following species causes malabsorption of fats, fat soluble substances and Vitamin B12?
*a. Giardia
Which of the following statements is false?
*d. Tsetse flies lay their eggs in the shallow water, making it easy to find and eliminate their eggs.
Which type of cyst from some amoebae parasites, found in humans and domestic animals, contains chromatoidal bars?
*d. E. coli
Many protozoa form cysts which are round cytoplasmic masses surrounded by a rigid or semi-rigid cyst wall secreted by an organism. Which of the following is not true of cysts?
*b. The cyst form of an organism is not the infective form of a parasite.
Biopsy specimens were taken from patients infected with just Naegleria and patients infected with just Acanthamoeba. What is the difference observed between the two different biopsy specimens?
*d. Both cysts and trophozoites are found in the specimen from patient infected with Acanthamoeba, only trophozoites are found in the specimen from the patient infected with Naegleria, however.
Which of the following is false about primary amebic meningoencephalitis?
*b. Cysts found in CSF and high neutrophil count.
Which of the following speicies are free living amoebae?
*a. Naegleria fowleri and Hartmanella
Which of the following is false about Entamoeba gingivalis?
*a. The mature cyst has the size of 15 um.
The mature cyst of Entamoeba histolytica usually has 8 nuclei.
Which of the following species belong to suborder Tubulina?
*c. Entamoeba histolytica, Entamoeba gingivalis, Iodamoeba buctschlii
Which of the following species has the biggest size in suborder Tubulina?
*b. Entamoeba gingivalis
Species in sub-phylum Mastigophora use pseudopodia for locomotion.
Species in sub-phylum Sarcodina use flagella for locomotion.
Genitourinary amebiasis is one of the extraintestinal diseases caused by trophozoite- induced cell destruction.
Which of the following is extraintestinal diseases caused by trophozoites of Entamoeba histolytica?
a. Amebic liver abscess
b. Pulmonary Amebiasis
c. Brain abscess.
*d. All of the above
The two main functions of Entamoeba histolytica’s mediators of pathogenesis are:
a. Attachment to host’s epithelia cells in the large intestine, and protection against binding of antibody and attachment
b. Attachment to host’s epithelia cells in the large intestine, and protection against phagocytosis by neutrophils.
c. Attachment to host’s epithelia cells in the large intestine, and protection against phagocytosis by macrophages.
*d. None of the above.
Which of the following is true about Entamoeba histolytica?
a. It belongs in the class Lobosea
b. It has mitosomes.
*d. a and b are correct
Non-pathogenic amoeba usually have ________ in their trophozoites.
*b. Bacteria
Which of the following endoparasites is parasite of digestive tract?
a. Giardia lambia
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Balantidium coli
*d. All of the above
Intestinal and Urogential Flagellates are members of the phylum:
*e. Sarcomastigophora
Giardia requires _______ cysts to establish infection.
*b. 10-100
{_________} is the fatty and smelly stool often associated with Giardia.
The incubation period of Giardia is {________}.
1-2 weeks
Which of the following is a similarity between prokaryotes and eukaryotesI. Both share an identical genetic language.
II. Both share a common set of membrane-bound organelles. III. Both have plasma membrane of similar construction.
IV. Both share common metabolic pathways.
*c. I , III and IV
What are some of the symptoms associated with Amebic Colitis?
a. Gastro-intestinal pain
b. Diarrhea
c. Weight loss
*d. All of the above
About how much of the world’s population is infected with E. histolytica?
*b. 10%
What is a main characteristic of Entamoeba coli?
*a. has 8 nuclei
What is a unique feature of Entamoeba histolytica?
*d. Has central nucleolus
Endodyogeny is a form of endopolyogeny where what is formed?
*b. Two daughter cells
Many protozoa form cysts.
Which of the following is considered to be the world’s most prevalent intestinal parasite?
*d. Giardia
One way to distinguish between Entomoeba histolytica and Entomoeba coli is by the number of nuclei, the chromatoidal bars, and the size of the cysts.
Which genus is pathogenic out of the suborder Tubulina?
*c. Entamoeba
What is commonly found inside pathogenic amoebas?
*c. Erythrocytes
{__________} attracts phagocytes to a pathogen.
Early and late endosomes are distinguished on the basis of what? (Select all that apply)
*a. Buoyant density
*c. pH
*d. protein composition
Which of the following is NOT a host type?
*a. Obligate Host
Which of the following supports the immature (not fully developed) form of a parasite?
*c. Intermediate host
This cell allows macrophages to engulf foreign particles in the host. {__________}
Which is true of the genus Trichomonas?
a. they have free flagella
b. no cyst form
c. anatomically site specific
*d. these are all true
A few components of the innate immune system are macrophages, the lining of internal tracts, secretions, soluble blood proteins, and the skin.
Metronidazole is a drug used to treat facultative aerobes such as Giardia and Entamoeba histolytica.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
*b. Cyst is the main form of transmission
Which of the following processes can be further studied to develop anti-protozoan drugs?
*d. The signaling pathway involves that leads to the biosynthesis of cyst wall components.
What of the following statements is true about protozoa?
*a. Have encystation that protect it against unfavorable environmental conditions.
Schizogony is a type of protozoa’s sexual reproduction, and sygany is a type of asexual reproduction.
Entamoeba histolytica and Escherichia coli can both have a maximum of 4 nuclei in its cyst form.
In an archeological dig, you find and unknown organism. You dissect the flagellum and find that the microtubules are arranged in a 9+2 structure. Based on this structure you can conclude that this organism…
*b. is a eukaryote
Which of the following is not a mediator of the pathogenesis of Entamoeba histolytica?
*d. hard external shell not sensitive to bodily changes
A patient with Amebiasis complains of gastro-intestinal pain and diarrhea. A stool sample taken from this patient will most likely contain…
*c. Entamoeba histolytica trophozoites
Sasha was diagnosed HIV positive 5 years ago. Upon her recent trip to Cabo San Luca, Mexico she returned with diarrhea, nausea and vomiting and dehydration. She also felt muscle cramps and weakness. Her physician prescribed her medication for Cholera, but the symptoms remained. What parasitic infection best described Sasha’s symptomatology?
*b. C. parvum
As a general rule among flagellates the principle means of locomotion is flagellar, where as among amoeba it is pseudopodial.
Humans are the definitive host for round worms because humans harbor the reproducing adult roundworms. Depending on the species, the adult female nematode produces either fertilized eggs or Larvae. Which route is incorrect?
a. Eggs maybe immediately infective by being ingested
b. Eggs or larvae may require a period of external development to reach the infective stage
c. An insect may transmit eggs or larvae to a new host
*d. None of the above
What distinguishes a pathogenic amoeba from a nonpathogenic is the ability to transform from the cyst form to the trophozoite form:
Which of the following is NOT true of Balantidium?
*d. It is among the smallest members of Protozoa
Which of the following parasites causes African sleeping sickness?
*b. Trypanosoma brucei
During pairing of homologous chromosomes,crossover of chromosomes may result in the formation of recombinant.
*C. Chromosomes
Naegleria is commonly found in fresh water lakes in ponds in Florida and the southern U.S.
In ciliates, the numerous basal bodies are interconnected by a series of subpellicular [_______] or neurofibrils.
*b. microfilaments
Which of the following endoparasites is parasite of digestive tract?
a. Giardia lamblia
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Balantidium coli
*d. All of the above
Which type of pseudopodia is the most common form among parasitic amoebae?
*b. Lobopodia
[________] 1. Crescent shaped membrane
[________] 2. Rodlike structure that runs along the base of the undulating membrane
[________] 3. Supporting structure embedded along the longitudinal axis on the cytoplasm
Which of the following processes does not involve sexual reproduction?
*c. Schizogony
Endodyogeny is a specialized sexual reproduction involving nuclear exchange and union after cells join.
Which of the following are true about cysts:
I) They are the infective or transmissible form of parasite.
II) They protect against unfavorable external environmental conditions.
III) They are the site for morphogenesis and nuclear division.
*d. I, II, and III
Which enzymes are located within dynein arms of an axoneme?
*a. ATPases
Which of the following protozoans are particularly notorious for causing primary amoebic meningoencephalitis?
*b. Naegleria fowleri
Why is the fatality rate for those infected with Naegleria fowleri so high?
a. Death occurs only a few days after symptoms surface
b. Most diagnoses are made post mortem
c. Treatment options are few and provide limited effectiveness
*d. All of the above
During asexual reproduction in Protozoa, the process of fission takes place in which sequence?
*c. organelles, nucleus, cytoplasm
Members of the sub-phylum Sarcodina have which characteristic?
*d. usage of pseudopods for locomotion
Members of the phylum Sarcomastigophora have:
*c. Flagella and/or Pseudopodia
If you encounter an organism that has a macronucleus and a micronucleus, you can tell that you are NOT dealing with a ciliate.
Well-defined nuclei bounded by nuclear envelopes are characteristic of ALL protozoa.
How are microtubules within axoneme of motile flagella/cilia organized?
*d. 9+2
Balantidium coli is in Phylum {_______}
What is the size of Protozoa?
*b. 1-150 micrometers
What is the purpose of encystation?
a. protection against unfavorable external environmental conditions
b. nuclear division
c. parasite transmission
*d. all of the above
Organisms in Protozoa are:
*c. single-celled, eukaryotic
Protozoa can reproduce both sexually and asexually.
Native cells first encounter which of the following cell receptors:
b. IgM
c. IgD
*d. both b and c
There are five different classes of antibodies distinguished by heavy chains called Isotypes. Which class is associated with hypersensitivity?
*c. IgE
Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T cells must express which of the following on their surfaces?
*C. Class II MHC antigens
What is the portion of antigen that is bound by a given antibody or recognized by T cell defined as?
*b. Antigenic determinant
Which Immunoglobulin comprises as much as 80% of all antibodies in the blood?
*a. IgG
Globular proteins are produced by which immune cell type?
*b. B Cells
Where do T-Cells mature?
*b. Thymus
During primary and secondary immune responses, the antibody or antibodies involved is/are:
a. IgM
b. IgA
c. IgG
*d. Two of the above
The response of IgG during a first exposure is exactly the same as it is during a second exposure.
The innate immune response is specific to a microbe.
All the following are true of the adaptive immune response except?
*b. The magnitude of the response decreases with every encounter
Which of the following are associated with MHC class II?
a. binding of peptides from molecules that are internalized by cell
b. CD4+ T cells
The HIV virus targets which type of cell as a receptor?
*b. CD4 T-cells
A deficiency in this immunoglobulin isotype, the major isotype found in the intestinal tract, can lead to higher susceptibility to Giardia infection. Which isotype is it?
*a. IgA
Which of the following is a similarity between phagocytosis and endocytosis?
*c. They are both part of the immune system.
According to the clonal selection theory, B cells become committed to antibody formation..
*b. In the absence of the antigen
Antibodies are specific to their native conformations.
Immunological memory provides long-term immunity.
T cells bind to antigens in their native conformations.
Which Immunoglobulin can form a pentamer?
*c. IgM
Each antibody has how many equivalent binding sites?
*b. Two
Regarding adaptive immune response, what increases with each encounter?
*E. Magnitude of response and Affinity only
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding B cells?
*d. B cells commitment to antibody specificity occurs after exposure to the antigen
What is the most prevalent immunoglobulin isotype found in serum (blood)?
*a. IgG
High levels of eosinophils are often indicative of worms.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Adaptive Immune Response?
*c. It is not specific to microbe
Most immune cells originate from stem cells found in bone marrow.
Which of the following cytokines is INCORRECTLY paired with its function?
*b. IL 10; stimulates B-cell differentiation
In a humoral reaction, specialized molecules in the circulatory system interact with the parasite, forming immune complexes.
Insecticides are the most ecological way to control intermediate hosts.
Except certain viral infections, parasitic diseases are more difficult to control than other infectous diseases.
Parasites reproduce fast with a large number of progeny.
Caterpillars are invading a small garden. Certain plants in the garden set off a pheromone. Wasp migrate and kill the caterpillars. What type of interaction is this?
*b. Tritrophic interaction
A hosts spleen and red blood cells have become enlarged because of a parasite. What type of effect does this parasite have on the host?
*d. Hypertrophy
Constant cell damage, which causes death of cells or tissues, is an example of:
*c. Necrosis
Each time our bodies encounter an antigen, there is refinement of the immune response so that next time, our bodies are better at recognizing the invading entity. This is an example of which of the following?
*a. increasing affinity within the adaptive immune response
Th1 cells characteristically secrete interleukin 2, gamma interferon, and tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
T-cells are activated by which of the following?
*b. clonal selection
The components of innate immunity in eukaryotic cells include:
a. secretions
b. linings of internal tracts
c. Phagocytic cells (macrophages, neutrophils. and natural killer cells.
*d. all of the above
Which of the following is NOT true of antibodies?
*c. Antibodies are produced by both B cells and T cells.
T cells…
*d. Are unique in that they can only recognize antigens presented to them by another cell (usually a macrophage).
Component proteins are part of cellular innate immunity.
What type of immune cells derived from myeloid progenitor cells is specialized for parasitic infection?
*d. Eosinophil
One important group of opsonin molecules is complement protein.
The main difference between B cells and T cells mentioned in lecture is that:
*c. Only B cells secrete their immunoglobulin receptors as plasma antibodies.
Which of the following is not a type of membrane protein?
*b. cytoskeletal proteins
The main difference between phagocytosis and endocytosis is:
*d. the participation of actin in phagocytosis
Intermediate filaments is composed of:
*b. alpha keratins
A cell can respond to a signal by:
a. activating enzyme activity
b. changing its cytoskeleton
The inner and outer leaflets of the plasma membrane bilayer feature identical lipid profiles.
What are blood-borne factors that can coat particles to be ingested?
*c. Opsonins
Drugs that limit or restrict worm mobility in the gastrointestinal tract MOST LIKELY involve which of the following cell feature that helps increase the effectiveness of the treatment?
*b. the worm’s cytoskeleton
Lipid-soluble molecules, such as alcohols, cannot diffuse through the plasma membrane.
[___________] proteins are covalently linked to membrane via a lipid molecule.
Lipid anchored
Which of the following describes the fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane?
*b. phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins
Which is NOT a part of the eukaryotic cell nucleus?
*a. Ribosomes
Which of the following is true about phagocytosis (e.g., the endocytic pathway of parasites)?
*b. Phagocytosis is dependent on microfilaments.
Which of the following is incorrect?
a. Being diploid allows the parasites to combine its chromosome and generates diversity.
b. The advantage of being diploid is different from the advantage of sexual reproduction in parasites.
*c. All parasites known are diploid.
d. DNA is packaged into chromosomes
Which of the following is not involved in motility of the cell?
*c. keratin
Which of the following is false regarding commensal microbes?
a. Antigenic and can elicit antibody responses
b. Synthesize metabolites that are essential nutrients for the host
c. Acquired by infection
*d. All of the above are true
Which characteristic is not true of the plasma membrane?
*b. It ensures compartmentalization within the cell.
What parasite can survive the harsh conditions of lysosomes fusing to the phagosome in which it is contained and prevent the host from killing it?
*c. Leishmania
What are the classes of phagocytic receptors?
*b. opsonin-dependent and non-opsonin dependent
What are the classes of endosomes?
*a. early and late
Phagocytosis is the process by which:
*c. specialized cells (macrophages, neutrophils, dendritic cells) internalize particulate material greater than 0.5um in diameter.
All of the following are classifications of membrane proteins in a eukaryotic cell EXCEPT:
*c. phagocytic
The [________] is the site where synthesized proteins and other materials are sorted, modified and from where they are transported to specific cellular destinations.
Golgi Apparatus
Which of the following membrane proteins include receptors?
a. Integral Proteins
c. Lipid Anchored Proteins
What are the functions of the cytoskeleton?
a. Provide movement of cilia and flagella
b. Transport materials and organelles within the cell
MHC class I and class II are present in all cells, making them antigen presenting cells.
The host-pathogen interaction always results in disease.
[________] Circular RNA with no protein coat
[________] Virus injects genetic information into host cell DNA and becomes a provirus
Lysogenic Infection
[________] Virus hijacks host cell machinery to replicate itself; kills host cell
Lytic infection
[________] Is not a living cell
Which of the following proteins span the membrane?
*b. integral proteins
The endoplasmic reticulum performs the following function(s)?
a. Protein synthesis
b. Lipid synthesis
Some cyanobacteria as well as plants are capable of performing photosynthesis.
The following can be found in both Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes except?
*c. Nucleus
What is the significance of membranes to host-parasite relations?
*a. The parasite has to avoid activating the host via membrane proteins

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